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Question #40633

Difficulty: 8/10 | 🟢 Free

The Question

Let M=((20)(42)(33)−1(55))M = \begin{pmatrix} \binom{2}{0} & \binom{4}{2} \\ \binom{3}{3}-1 & \binom{5}{5} \end{pmatrix} and GnG_n be the greatest binomial coefficient in the expansion of (1+x)n(1+x)^n for a positive integer nn. If the matrix A=GnM2−5adj(2M)A = G_n M^2 - 5 \text{adj}(2M) is singular, then the value of ∑r=0n(nr)2\sum_{r=0}^n \binom{n}{r}^2 is

Options

  • A.

    252

  • B.

    924

  • C.

    70

  • D.

    3432

Check Your Answer

Correct Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Explanation

How the Examiner Thinks

Bridge

Practice problems that bridge the gap between foundational theory and advanced practical application.

Concepts Behind This Question

Greatest Binomial Coefficient|Determinant Scaling Property|Singular vs Non-Singular Matrices

Why This Question Is Tricky

Common Mistakes

This question tests the determinant scaling property and adjoint properties specifically for 2×22 \times 2 matrices, combined with binomial coefficients.

The primary trap is the reflexive use of the 3×33 \times 3 adjoint scaling rule adj(kM)=k2adj(M)\text{adj}(kM) = k^2 \text{adj}(M), which is heavily ingrained in JEE aspirants.

Students who incorrectly apply this will compute adj(2M)=4adj(M)\text{adj}(2M) = 4 \text{adj}(M), leading to Gn=20G_n = 20 and n=6n=6, which yields the trap answer 924.

The problem forces careful dimension checking before applying matrix properties.

Quick Facts About This Question

Question Information

SubjectMathematics
ChapterBinomial Theorem - Class 11
ConceptGreatest Binomial Coefficient
Difficulty8
Cognitive Load7
Target Solve Time160 sec
AccessFree