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Question #40653

Difficulty: 8/10 | 🟢 Free

The Question

Let Sm(x)=∑k=1nkm(nk)xkS_m(x) = \sum_{k=1}^n k^m \binom{n}{k} x^k for m∈Nm \in \mathbb{N} and x>0x > 0. A function f(x)f(x) is defined as f(x)=S3(x)S1(x)−(S2(x)S1(x))2f(x) = \frac{S_3(x)}{S_1(x)} - \left(\frac{S_2(x)}{S_1(x)}\right)^2. If the maximum value of f(x)f(x) for x∈(0,∞)x \in (0, \infty) is 2020, then the value of nn is:

Options

  • A.

    79

  • B.

    80

  • C.

    81

  • D.

    82

Check Your Answer

Correct Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Explanation

How the Examiner Thinks

Monster

Ultra-high difficulty questions designed to test your limit, stamina, and deep conceptual understanding.

Concepts Behind This Question

Properties of Binomial Coefficients|Variance of Discrete Variable|Bernoulli Trials Logic

Why This Question Is Tricky

Common Mistakes

This question tests the student's ability to map complex combinatorial sums to the moments of a probability distribution, specifically the variance of a size-biased binomial distribution.

The primary trap is the 'Bernoulli Trial' dependency: students often attempt to evaluate S1,S2,S3S_1, S_2, S_3 through brute-force differentiation of (1+x)n(1+x)^n or algebraic factorial expansion.

This leads to massive time consumption and a high probability of calculation errors in the second and third moments.

By recognizing f(x)f(x) as Var(X)=E[X2]−(E[X])2\text{Var}(X) = E[X^2] - (E[X])^2 for a shifted binomial random variable X−1∼B(n−1,xx+1)X-1 \sim B(n-1, \frac{x}{x+1}), the variance (n−1)pq(n-1)pq can be written directly.

The distractor 80 catches students who forget the index shift and incorrectly use nn instead of n−1n-1 in the variance formula.

Quick Facts About This Question

Question Information

SubjectMathematics
ChapterBinomial Theorem - Class 11
ConceptProperties of Binomial Coefficients
Difficulty8
Cognitive Load7
Target Solve Time160 sec
AccessFree