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Question #45266
The Question
In a sterile hybrid model, a mutation causes a severe delay in centriole separation during gametogenesis. If the terminalization of chiasmata proceeds normally during Prophase I, but the centrioles completely fail to migrate to opposite poles, which of the following represents the most likely immediate meiotic outcome?
Options
- A.
The synaptonemal complex will fail to dissolve, permanently arresting the primary meiocyte in the diplotene stage.
- B.
A unipolar spindle apparatus will form, resulting in the failure of homologous chromosome segregation and subsequent aneuploidy.
- C.
The cell will successfully complete reductional division but fail at the equational division due to the absence of a second S-phase.
- D.
Chiasmata will remain intact at the metaphase plate, leading to the mechanical shearing of sister chromatids during Anaphase I.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Evolutionary_Exception
Tackle problems where standard rules evolve or change based on specific environmental constraints.
Concepts Behind This Question
Centriole Duplication Timing|Terminalization of Chiasmata|DNA vs Chromosome Content
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Students often memorize meiotic stages in isolation, failing to integrate the cytoplasmic events (centriole migration) with nuclear events (chiasmata terminalization).
The trap lies in assuming that if chromosomal preparation (terminalization) is complete, normal disjunction will naturally follow.
This question tests the understanding that mechanical segregation strictly requires a bipolar spindle, and decoupling these two cycles leads to non-disjunction.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Cell Cycle and Cell Division - Class 11 |
| Concept | Centriole Duplication Timing |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |