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Question #45282
The Question
During spermatogenesis in a human male, a non-disjunction event occurs exclusively in one of the secondary spermatocytes. Based on the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance and the mechanics of cell division, which of the following statements regarding the resulting four spermatids is INCORRECT?
Options
- A.
Exactly 50% of the spermatids produced from this primary spermatocyte will have a normal haploid (n=23) chromosome complement.
- B.
Fertilization of a normal ovum by the (n+1) spermatid will result in a zygote exhibiting aneuploidy due to altered gene dosage.
- C.
The physical basis of this anomaly is the failure of homologous chromosomes to segregate during the equational division.
- D.
One of the resulting spermatids will possess 22 chromosomes, which upon fertilization would result in a monosomic zygote.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Regulatory_Failure
Understand how NOT, EXCEPT, and logical constraints are used to manipulate exam results.
Concepts Behind This Question
Chromosomal_Theory_of_Inheritance|Aneuploidy|Gametes
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Distinguishing between the specific chromosomal structures that separate during Meiosis I vs Meiosis II.
Students often memorize that non-disjunction causes aneuploidy but fall for the 'Terminology/Process Trap'—failing to recognize that homologous chromosomes separate in Anaphase I, while sister chromatids separate in Anaphase II (equational division).
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Cell Cycle and Cell Division - Class 11 |
| Concept | Equational Division Logic |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |