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Question #45539
The Question
A couple relies on lactational amenorrhea as their sole contraceptive method 5 months postpartum. Despite the female experiencing a complete absence of menstruation, an unintended pregnancy occurs. Which of the following physiological principles best explains this contraceptive failure?
Options
- A.
High levels of oxytocin during intense lactation override the prolactin-induced suppression of the GnRH-LH axis.
- B.
The first postpartum ovulation occurs prior to the first postpartum menstruation, allowing fertilization before the return of the menstrual bleed.
- C.
Prolactin directly inhibits the corpus luteum, preventing progesterone withdrawal and thus delaying menstruation despite regular ovulation.
- D.
The continuous suckling reflex depletes maternal GnRH stores, leading to a sudden compensatory LH surge and unexpected ovulation.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Regulatory_Failure
Understand how NOT, EXCEPT, and logical constraints are used to manipulate exam results.
Concepts Behind This Question
Prolactin|GnRH|LH_Surge
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Students often falsely equate 'Amenorrhea' (no menses) with 'Anovulation' (no ovulation).
The trap is failing to recognize the chronological sequence of the menstrual cycle: ovulation is the mid-cycle event, and menstruation is the terminal event of an unfertilized cycle.
Thus, returning fertility (ovulation) strikes before the first warning sign (menstruation).
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Reproductive Health - Class 12 |
| Concept | Barrier Method Dynamics |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |