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Question #45546
The Question
A 35-year-old male who underwent a bilateral vasectomy 10 years ago opts for a surgical reversal. Although the surgeon successfully restores the anatomical patency of the vasa deferentia, the patient's subsequent semen analysis reveals severe sperm agglutination and loss of motility, rendering him infertile. Which of the following is the primary biological cause for this failure?
Options
- A.
Permanent cessation of spermatogenesis due to pressure-induced atrophy of the germinal epithelium.
- B.
Disruption of the blood-testis barrier leading to the systemic production of anti-sperm antibodies.
- C.
Degeneration of Leydig cells resulting in insufficient intra-testicular testosterone for sperm maturation.
- D.
Failure of the seminal vesicles and prostate gland to contribute to seminal plasma due to prolonged disuse.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Regulatory_Failure
Understand how NOT, EXCEPT, and logical constraints are used to manipulate exam results.
Concepts Behind This Question
Vas Deferens|Sertoli Cell Functions|Autoimmune Response
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Students often memorize the NCERT line that 'reversibility of sterilization is very poor' but mistakenly attribute this to the testes 'forgetting' how to make sperm or permanent tissue death (Option A).
The trap relies on failing to integrate the concept of the blood-testis barrier from the 'Human Reproduction' chapter with the clinical outcome of vasectomy in the 'Reproductive Health' chapter.
Recognizing sperm as auto-antigenic is key to understanding immunological infertility.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Reproductive Health - Class 12 |
| Concept | Sterilization Irreversibility |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |