Before You Begin
Question #45560
The Question
A 26-year-old female presents with secondary infertility and amenorrhea. Ultrasound reveals anatomically normal ovaries with intact primordial follicles. However, a hormonal assay shows abnormally low levels of FSH, LH, and Estrogen. If a micro-vascular lesion is suspected, which of the following is the most likely primary cause of this condition?
Options
- A.
Occlusion of the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal circulation, preventing GnRH from stimulating the pars distalis.
- B.
Degeneration of the hypothalamic nuclei responsible for synthesizing and releasing gonadotropins.
- C.
Failure of the pars nervosa to store and release hypothalamic hormones required for follicular maturation.
- D.
Primary ovarian failure leading to the absence of positive feedback by estrogen on the hypothalamus.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Regulatory_Failure
Understand how NOT, EXCEPT, and logical constraints are used to manipulate exam results.
Concepts Behind This Question
Infertility Definition|Hypothalamo-Hypophyseal Portal System|GnRH Secretion
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Distinguishing between the anatomical transport mechanisms of the anterior vs. posterior pituitary (portal vs. neural) and applying the negative feedback loop of the HPG axis.
The primary trap is Option B, which relies on the 'Functional Overlap/Terminology' trap—students frequently misread 'gonadotropins' (FSH/LH) for 'gonadotropin-releasing hormone' (GnRH).
Option D tests the 'Quantitative Nuance' of feedback loops, where primary failure leads to high, not low, upstream hormones.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Reproductive Health - Class 12 |
| Concept | Infertility Definition |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |